Free Case Evaluation by a Local Lawyer!
Enter Zipcode or for Immediate Assistance call (888) 428-7281
Have a general legal question? Click hereAsk a Local Attorney. 100% Anonymous. Free Answers.
Or for Immediate Assistance call (888) 428-7281
Free Case Evaluation by a Local Lawyer: Click hereMartinson & Beason, PC | Douglas C Martinson II
The house would be part of her estate and would pass to whoever she named in her will. If she doesn't have a will, it would go to her heirs (children, new husband, etc).
Answer Applies to: Alabama
Replied: 10/20/2011
The McDonnell Law Firm, PLLC | Patrick J. McDonnell
Unless specifically mentioned in a will, it could go to that or those individuals. If she died without a will, it would go to her husband.
Answer Applies to: New York
Replied: 10/12/2011
The Law Offices of Laurie E. Ohall, P.A. | Laurie E. Ohall
The answer to your question is that, it depends. If the Wife had a Will when she passed away, and the Will leaves the house to the Husband, then the house belongs to the Husband (assuming the Wife did not die with minor children). If there were minor children, the Wife cannot leave the house outright to the Husband. Let's assume there are no minor children, and there is no Will. Assuming the Wife died after October 1, 2010 (because the laws changed on that date with regards to the homestead), and if there is just the Husband, the house would belong to the Husband, in accordance with Florida law. If there were children and the Husband, then Florida law gives the surviving spouse the right to either take a life estate in the homestead or elect a half interest in the homestead (with the other half going to the surviving children). The election must be made within 6 months of the decedent's death.
Answer Applies to: Florida
Replied: 10/11/2011
Wiegandt& Doubles | Malcolm Doubles
That all depends on whether wife had children that were not also the husbands. Consult an attorney who does real estate or estate administration work.
Answer Applies to: Virginia
Replied: 10/28/2011
Ashman Law Office | Glen Edward Ashman
That depends on whether she has a will, what state she lives in, and whether she has children, and since you left all that out there is no way to answer you.
Answer Applies to: Georgia
Replied: 10/11/2011
Paul Nidich, Attorney at law | Paul Nidich
That would depend upon whether the wife had a will. If not, how many children the wife had, how many of those children were also the husband's, i.e., the distribution followed the statute of descent. Too many variables to answer this seemingly simple question.
Answer Applies to: Ohio
Replied: 10/10/2011
Batten & Beasley, LLC | Gigi Penn
The provisions under the wife's will apply if the wife left one. If the wife did not leave a will, the widower generally gets the house. However, this is subject to limitations described in Minn. Stat. Section 524.2. For example, if the wife had children from a previous marriage, they may also share in the ownership of the house.
Answer Applies to: Minnesota
Replied: 10/10/2011
Bullivant Houser Bailey PC | Darin Christensen
It will depend on what her will says if she has a will. If she does not have a will, the husband would be the owner if she has no children who are not also children of husband. If she has children who are not also children of the husband, then husband will own 50% and her children will own the other 50%. In each situation, a probate or small estate affidavit will be necessary to transfer the house to the beneficiary.
Answer Applies to: Oregon
Replied: 10/10/2011
Harville-Stein Law Offices, LLC | Dean D. Stein
It goes by the Will, and if no Will, by intestacy to the heirs-at-law.
Answer Applies to: Alabama
Replied: 10/28/2011
Minor, Bandonis and Haggerty, P.C. | Brian Haggerty
If there are no joint owners with right of survivorship, then the property would pass as set forth in Wife's will; if she has no will, then it would pass according to the statutes concerning intestacy.
Answer Applies to: Oregon
Replied: 10/10/2011
Goldsmith & Guymon | Dara Goldsmith
It depends upon how the title is held by the wife. Another issue is whether it is separate or community property. If she holds it solely in her own name, a probate is probably necessary. If she holds in another manner, i.e. joint tenancy, tenants in common, etc. that needs to be examined as well.
Answer Applies to: Nevada
Replied: 10/10/2011
The Schreiber Law Firm | Jeffrey D. Schreiber
If there is a will, then it is given to whoever is named in the will to receive it. If there is no will, then the intestacy laws of the state where she lived (which directs what happens to property if there is no will) will control. In either event, in order to transfer title to the proper heir, it will likely require a probate to be opened as the executor will have to be the one to transfer title as the owner is now deceased.
Answer Applies to: California
Replied: 10/10/2011













