Is a verbal contract between two people, in this case enough to hold up in court? Posted on May 26, 2011

My husband was recently TDY and during that time we were selling our Jeep to my brother-in-law. My BIL agreed to pay $1,000 for the Jeep which was an agreement he and my husband came to before the TDY. He agreed to make payments to us and he paid my husband $100... While my husband was gone something apparently happened and my BIL needed the Jeep right away. Words were exchanged with my husband about it and basically I was told that he needed the title in order to get insurance and such on it, everything is in my husbands name though. My BIL told me that my husband had said to sign the title over to him (using my husband's name) and because my husband and I were at odds with each other and because I absolutely trusted both of them I did sign it. My husband wasn't really upset when I told him either. Well after we did that my BIL stopped talking about paying us and decided to act as though he didn't owe us anything. My husband came home, confronted him on it and he was told (by my BIL) that because A: we had no signed contract and B: he had the title in his name he didn't owe us anything... So my question is this! Is a verbal contract between two people, in this case enough to hold up in court? And because I signed it doesn't that make the title null and void? But would my husband have to press charges against me or would I go to jail for fraud?...

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