Is the untaken portion of a deceased persons RMD subject to his estate or does it belong to the spouse as his beneficiary? 6 Answers as of August 19, 2013

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Law Office of Thomas C. Phipps | Thomas C Phipps
If the spouse files a joint return for the year of death, it can be included n the 1040 form. It could also be attributed to the estate.
Answer Applies to: Missouri
Replied: 8/19/2013
Shawn Owen | Shawn Owen
Generally, the plan/policy language is going to govern and that will dictate whether it passes through the estate or directly to a beneficiary. Please review the plan language to see if it specifies a beneficiary explicitly.
Answer Applies to: Georgia
Replied: 8/8/2013
Law Office Of Victor Waid
Law Office Of Victor Waid | Victor Waid
What is a RMD? Sounds like a type of property interest, but more information is needed.
Answer Applies to: California
Replied: 8/8/2013
Danville Law Group | Scott Jordan
It depends on whether the decedent listed a beneficiary with the plan administrator. Whoever is listed as the beneficiary is entitled to the money. If no one is listed, the money is part of the decedents probate estate.
Answer Applies to: California
Replied: 8/8/2013
Gates' Law, PLLC | Thomas E. Gates
If it identifies her as the beneficiary, she takes the remainder. Otherwise, it belongs to the estate and distribution made by the terms of the will.
Answer Applies to: Washington
Replied: 8/8/2013
    Neal M. Rimer, Esquire
    Neal M. Rimer, Esquire | Neal M. Rimer
    The remaining amount of RMD at the time of the decedent's death is considered IRD, income in respect to a decedent, and is taxable to the estate or the recipient. Who gets the money is a different question. The documents (retirement account, beneficiary designation, trust, if there is one, or any other documents) need to be reviewed to determine where the money goes. If the spouse was the beneficiary then the final joint return of the decedent and spouse could include the RMD balance.
    Answer Applies to: California
    Replied: 8/8/2013
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