Is a contract enforceable if only one party, the person receiving the service, signs it? 1 Answers as of April 04, 2017

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Walpole Law | Robert J. Walpole
That is an interesting question. If you are trying to make the other entity liable for the contract and it did not sign it, it might say it never agreed. If it is trying to make you responsible and you do not have a signed copy by it, well, I think that is a valid contract. ('It' is the other party to the transaction) Good luck.
Answer Applies to: Oklahoma
Replied: 4/4/2017
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