Joanna Mitchell & Associates, P.A. | Joanna Mitchell
If you are in Florida and owned it AND it was paid for prior to the marriage, the answer is most likely NO. However, if not paid for prior to the marriage, then your spouse probably has an interest in it. If you are divorcing, you should consult with an attorney.
Answer Applies to: Florida
Peters Law, PLLC | Mark T. Peters, Sr.
The spouse cannot take it from you, although in the right circumstances, your spouse may be entitled to half of the value of the property. However, if you have maintained the property as your separate property, you spouse is not entitled to any of it.
Answer Applies to: Idaho
James T. Weiner & Associates, P.C. | James T. Weiner
It depends upon a number of factors most specifically if you did something to make that property marital property.. Such as investing a significant amount of money in a premarital home to expand it during the marriage.(I.e. if you kept it separate its not marital property) Contact a knowledgeable attorney to be sure.
Answer Applies to: Michigan
Ellis & Abouelsood | John Danelon
Generally speaking, any property owned before marriage remains the separate property of the owner before, during and after marriage, in community property states. However, based on the nature of the property and usage thereof, it may be possible to unintentionally change the property, such as intermingling separate funds with community funds.
Answer Applies to: California